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I have a question about where to use is and has (wrong) please explain why this is so, i am having trouble understanding. Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned for work or.

What are the differences in meaning between the following sentences (right) he will have written the essay All of the sentences below convey the meaning of compulsion of exercise to be carried out in three months

I have read a similar question here but that one talks about the usage of has/have with reference to anyone

Here, i wish to ask a question of the form Does anyone has/have a black pen The question asked covers more ground than just have or has I think op's example is just one example and the question asked is in order to know if who agrees with the verb when who is subject of this verb.

It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he) The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the noun. So yes, in these cases do becomes does for third person singular because it is finite.

Does she have a child

In american english, you need to use the auxiliaries do and does with the main verb have to form a question in the present tense In british english, you can use either the do and does with have or the main verb have only as in the second sentence to form a question So the second sentence that starts with the verb have is correct in formal bre. I came across many sentences which have has had, had had for example the one that has had the most profound impact is generics i wanted to know what are the basic rule of using those?

Could you please tell me the difference between has vs has been 1) the idea has deleted vs. 2) the idea has been deleted what is the difference between these two? But actually, one or both of them has already disengaged emotionally from the marriage

In this case, 'both of them', a plural form, is closer to the verb 'has', so i thought 'has' was grammatically wrong and the right verb should be 'have'

Does a singular verb in such cases sound more natural in speech and writing to native speakers? Such as has, will, shall, should, ought to, must etc And he gave an example of following sentence He will has written the essay

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