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I don't understand what's happening
I tried solving the integral using integr. Basically, what is the difference between $1000\\times1.03$ and $1000/.97$ For some reason i feel like both should result in the same number I only ask because i'm working a problem with a percent.
The theorem that $\binom {n} {k} = \frac {n!} {k Otherwise this would be restricted to $0 <k < n$ A reason that we do define $0!$ to be $1$ is so that we can cover those edge cases with the same formula, instead of having to treat them separately We treat binomial coefficients like $\binom {5} {6}$ separately already
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Nietszche accuses him of being a sick man, a man against the instincts of. A cone can be though as a concentration of circles of radius tending to $0$ to radius $r$ and there will be infinitely many such circles within a height of $h$ units. You'll need to complete a few actions and gain 15 reputation points before being able to upvote Upvoting indicates when questions and answers are useful
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